So I'm talking by phone to the owner. Bike is being sold with a bill of sale only. I ask about the status of the title, and it comes out that he is the 2nd owner. Bought it from the original owner who purchased the bike via a bank loan. Original owner lowsided the bike and tore the fairings all up, and then sold it to 2nd owner with bill of sale only and money still due on the bank loan. Bank filed a lien on the bike.
Who owns the bike? It would seem that the bank does given the lien against the bike. But money has changed hands, yet the original owner is still liable for the bank note and the outstanding balance of the loan. Is this akin to buying stolen goods? I'm probably going to walk away from this, plenty of race bikes out there - but the lien/liability/ownership question has been rattling around in my head and I'm not clear on the precedence.
To help seal the decision, apparently in CA if you have a bike in the open bed of your truck and get pulled over they can run the tags on the bike (but not if bike is in an enclosed trailer), I'd guess that the tags would come back with a bank lien and law enforcement would seize the bike. I'm willing to total the bike on the track and walk away from it, but not losing the bike in a seizure. Defrauding anyone isn't really my thing either, and I appreciate the current "owner" being up front about the title. I've bought more than a few bikes in really weird situations before, but this deal kinda resets the bar a bit.
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